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Limited Atonement Did Christ die only for the elect? Some teach that Christ died only for the elect and that this is a clear doctrine taught in Holy Scripture. But is this really the case? In the following outline I will attempt to explore the pros and cons of this issue. The Case for Limited Atonement Those who teach limited atonement believe that Christ died only for the elect, not everybody. Chiefly the concepts of election and God's immutable will are used to "prove" that limited atonement is the only biblical conclusion one can reach from a close reading Scripture. There are several proof texts used for each of these concepts which I will outline here. The Argument from Election John 13:18 "I do not speak concerning all of you. I know whom I have chosen; but that the Scripture may be fulfilled, 'He who eats bread with Me has lifted up his heel against Me.'" (NKJ) In this passage, Jesus has just finished washing the Apostles' feet in order to teach them a lesson in humility. In verse 17 Jesus says "If you know these things, blessed are you if you do them.", these things being the realization of servanthood as the call of God's messengers. Those who teach limited atonement believe Jesus is saying that His words are not for everybody; "I do not speak concerning all of you" is taken to mean that since Judas was not chosen, Jesus' words are not for him for example. Furthermore when Jesus said "I know whom I have chosen; but that the Scripture may be fulfilled, 'He who eats bread with Me has lifted up his heel against Me'" this is read in the following manner by those who teach limited atonement: "I know whom I have chosen" refers to the desciples excepting Judas. This is not a natural reading of this text, and we know from John 6:70 that Jesus considered Judas to be chosen. It seems that Christ is merely saying that although Jesus had chosen them all, one whom He chose would betray Him; and that Jesus is telling this to the disciples (v 19). I therefore cannot see a compelling reason to accept this passage as teaching that Jesus' words weren't for Judas. John 17:6-9 "I have manifested Your name to the men whom You have given Me out of the world. They were Yours, You gave them to Me, and they have kept Your word. Now they have known that all things which You have given Me are from You. For I have given to them the words which You have given Me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came forth from You; and they have believed that You sent Me. I pray for them. I do not pray for the world but for those whom You have given Me, for they are Yours." (NKJ) In John 17:6-9 we see what is probably the strongest proof text for the teaching that Jesus died only for the elect. In verse 9 Jesus says "I pray for them (the ones God the Father has given Him). I do not pray for the world but for those whom You have given Me, for they are Yours."[emphasis added] A seemingly impregnable passage in support of limited atonement, for why would Jesus fail to pray for everybody if everybody was covered by His grace? Once again the answer lies in context. Jesus is speaking of His disciples, not of those who would believe through their teaching. It is clear from v 20 that the disciples are the ones for whom He is praying. In verse 20, Jesus says "I do not pray for these (the men in v 6) alone but also for those who will believe in Me (others) through their (the men in v 6 again) word." Since Jesus is referring to the disciples in v 9, this is not really a proof text for limited atonement through election. Rom 8:30-31 Moreover whom He predestined, these He also called; whom He called, these He also justified; and whom He justified, these He also glorified. What then shall we say to these things? If God is for us, who can be against us? (NKJ) In Romans 8:30-31 we see God calling and predestinating people, and not only that, but justifying and sanctifying them as well. Because of the words "If God is for us, who can be against us?"[emphasis added] those who teach limited atonement interpret this as meaning that Christ's atoning work is only for the elect, not for those who are not (This is a typical tactic used by those who teach limited atonement. The words "us" or "world" refer to the elect, not humanity in general.) The implication is that those who are not predestined were never willed to be saved, therefore all the promises and Jesus' vicarious death are for us alone. However, it is only evident from this passage that it is God who is the active agent in salvation, not that Jesus only died for the elect. 1Thes 5:9-10 For God did not appoint us to wrath, but to obtain salvation through our Lord Jesus Christ, who died for us, that whether we wake or sleep, we should live together with Him. (NKJ) We see that Christ died for us, meaning the elect (there are many similar passages). The conclusion is that Christ only died for the us, not everybody else. Again there is no reason to read limited atonement into this passage. II Th 2:13-14 But we are bound to give thanks to God always for you, brethren beloved by the Lord, because God from the beginning chose you for salvation through sanctification by the Spirit and belief in the truth, to which He called you by our gospel, for the obtaining of the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ. (NKJ) In Second Thessalonians we see that the sanctification and glorification pertain only to those chosen by God, the conclusion being that therefore Jesus only died for the elect. I have limited which verses I will quote for the sake of brevity. These are the "clearest" verses according to those who believe that Christ died for the elect only. The Argument from God's Will (Effectual Calling) Num. 23:19 "God is not a man, that He should lie, nor a son of man, that He should repent. Has He said, and will He not do? Or has He spoken, and will He not make it good?" (NKJ) What God says He will make good, in other words, when God speaks we can be sure that there will be action. Not only that, but God doesn't "change His mind", as we humans are apt to do. His will is both unchangeable and effective. It therefore follows that if God wills that a person is saved, that person is saved, therefore God can only have died for those He wishes to save (limited atonement), or else His will will have been thwarted. The problem with using this as a proof text is context again. In this passage Balaam is telling king Balak of the Moabites that God has already decided to bless Israel. All Balaam is teaching us here is that God is faithful to His promises. Isa 46:10 Declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times things that are not yet done, saying, 'My counsel shall stand, and I will do all My pleasure,' (NKJ) In Isaiah 46:10 God says that He has declared all things that will happen from the beginning to the end, that for Him all Human history is planned and that His council will stand. There is a grammatical problem with this interpretation though, what this verse is saying is God has planned the end of history from the beginning, and God will do His pleasure. It does not follow that God has ordained every particular thing in between. Acts 4:27-28 "For truly against Your holy Servant Jesus, whom You anointed, both Herod and Pontius Pilate, with the Gentiles and the people of Israel, were gathered together to do whatever Your hand and Your purpose determined before to be done." (NKJ) Acts 4:27-28 says that Jesus' crucifixion was planned beforehand by God. This is in the same vein as the quote above. God ordained that the crucifixion would be the means of salvation for mankind. It does not follow that God ordained exactly who did what. It only means that our evil human purposes will not thwart God's purpose. Rom 9:15-16 For He says to Moses, "I will have mercy on whomever I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whomever I will have compassion." So then it is not of him who wills, nor of him who runs, but of God who shows mercy. (NKJ) In Romans 9:15-16 we see predestination, God saves whom He will, and condemns who He will, and all this is because of God's will. However this does not prove that God only wills the elect to be saved, which is necessary for limited atonement to be true, it does prove that our salvation arises out of God's geacious will, and not our own. Heb 6:17-18 Thus God, determining to show more abundantly to the heirs of promise the immutability of His counsel, confirmed it by an oath, that by two immutable things, in which it is impossible for God to lie, we might have strong consolation, who have fled for refuge to lay hold of the hope set before us. (NKJ) Hebrews 6:17-18 states that God's council is immutable, His never changing will is the final word for all of human history! Once again we see that context shows this passage not to be teaching us limited atonement. The writer of Hebrews is teaching us we can count on God's promises through Christ, just as Abraham counted on God's promise (v 13) we can as well, since God is above all and His promises will be fulfilled. So because we believe in Christ, we can be assured of recieving our reward (vv 16, 17). The Overall Picture Because God elects only some people to eternal life and His will is always done, it would then follow that Jesus died only for the elect, or else God's will would have been foiled. His grace would have been nullified. All this flows from the concept that God's will is always done in all circumstances because He has ordained all things. In other words, God could not have offered His grace in vain, this would mean that something is required of us for salvation (not refusing). For the strict Reformed/Calvinist God's will is never nullified by the act of mankind. Therefore those whom He has elected are the ones He died for and no others or He would have died in vain. The case for Universal Atonement Those of us who teach Christ died for all men are not without Scriptural support. The idea is that Christ's atonement is offered to all, but only those who are empowered by the Holy Spirit through the means of grace are saved. This is not a "universalist" pronouncement, but a restatement of the clear teachings of Scripture. (I will limit my discussion to the Lutheran view and exclude the Semi-pelagian/Arminian view) The Scriptural Argument John 1:29 The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, "Behold! The Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world!" (NKJ) Here John the Baptist proclaims that Jesus will take away the sin of the world, not just of the chosen. In context it is a proclamation of Jesus' mission. If we take the word "world" to mean the elect, we would introducing a novel concept. Those who teach limited atonement say that world doesn't always mean the entire world. Luke 2:1, where the Evangelist says that the entire world was to be enrolled in the census, is often cited as an example of the use of the word world to mean less than the whole world. But even if this tack is true, it does not prove that the Baptist was speaking of only the elect in John 1:29, especially when he had a perfectly good word to refer to the elect, namely elect! The normal meaning of the word world is all of humanity, therefore I don't find the limited atonement interpretation compelling, and find the traditional interpretation to be more faithful to the actual words written. John 6:51 "I am the living bread which came down from heaven. If anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever; and the bread that I shall give is My flesh, which I shall give for the life of the world." (NKJ) Jesus' flesh is given for the life of the world, not just for some (the elect). Once again one must re-interpret the plain meaning of the text to make it say "the elect" instead of "the world." John 11:51-52 Now this he did not say on his own authority; but being high priest that year he prophesied that Jesus would die for the nation, and not for that nation only, but also that He would gather together in one the children of God who were scattered abroad. (NKJ) We see here that the Apostle John that Jesus' mission is universal in scope and not limited by nations or peoples. However, this is not a particularly strong passage in favor of universal atoneent, since the phrase "He would gather together in one the children of God who were scattered abroad" could refer to the elect in general. Rom 5:15-18 But the free gift is not like the offense. For if by the one man's offense many died, much more the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abounded to many. And the gift is not like that which came through the one who sinned. For the judgment which came from one offense resulted in condemnation, but the free gift which came from many offenses resulted in justification. For if by the one man's offense death reigned through the one, much more those who receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ.) Therefore, as through one man's offense judgment came to all men, resulting in condemnation, even so through one Man's righteous act the free gift came to all men, resulting in justification of life. (NKJ) St. Paul is saying that through Adam death came to all men (v 18) but through Christ the free gift comes to all men. We can see a parallel in verse 15 in which Paul says many died through Adam but many are saved through Christ, the application is universal in both cases. It is interresting that those who teach limited atonement wish to apply the word "all" to every single person when it comes to sin, but when it comes to their doctrine of limited atonement they wish to apply the word all only to the "elect." However this passage most clearly teaches us that Christ died for everybody. Take for example "even so through one Man's righteous act the free gift came to all men, resulting in justification of life", I can't think of a clearer way of saying that He died for everybody than this. Once again if Paul wished to teach that Jesus died for the elect only the word elect could have been used, but it wasn't. It is only by changing the normal meaning of the word all that limited atonement can be made to stand, albeit on shaky legs. Col. 1:19-20 For it pleased the Father that in Him all the fullness should dwell, and by Him to reconcile all things to Himself, by Him, whether things on earth or things in heaven, having made peace through the blood of His cross. (NKJ) All things are reconciled through Christ Jesus. To say otherwise is to go contrary to this clear statement of Scripture. But the real question is why would God save things on earth, but leave the crown of His achievement, human beings, without hope because He simply decided not to elect them? The answer is that God has indeed reconciled all things to Himself through the atoning death of Jesus Christ His Son. That some refuse this marvelous gift is not God's doing, but the by-product of our own sinful wills. 1 Tim 2:5-6 For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus, who gave Himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time... (NKJ) God's ransom is for everybody. Attempts to say "all" refers to the elect change the plain meaning of the text. Heb. 2:9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels, for the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor, that He, by the grace of God, might taste death for everyone. (NKJ) Christ has tasted death for everyone, not just the elect. The gift is for all, just as Scriptur says, and without playing with the words. 1 Pet 3:18 For Christ also suffered once for sins, the just for the unjust, that He might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh but made alive by the Spirit, (NKJ) We are all unjust, so Christ suffered for us all. I Jn 2:2 And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world. (NKJ) Christ is the propitiation for all sins, not those included in us. Furthermore, this shows how the Apostle John uses the word world, it is universal in scope, both in his gospel and his epistles. 1 Tim 2:3-7 For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus, who gave Himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time, for which I was appointed a preacher and an apostle-- I am speaking the truth in Christ and not lying-- a teacher of the Gentiles in faith and truth. (NKJ) God desires all men to be saved and come to a knowledge of the truth (v 4), therefore Christ gave Himself as a ransom for all. Verse 4 says clearly that God does indeed wish all men to be saved, which should mean that all are saved if His will is always done (See above). In v 6 Paul says that Christ gave Himself as a ransom for all, another clear statement for universal atonement. 2 Pet 2:1 But there were also false prophets among the people, even as there will be false teachers among you, who will secretly bring in destructive heresies, even denying the Lord who bought them, and bring on themselves swift destruction. (NKJ) Peter says that the Lord bought the false teachers, who bring destruction on themselves. If it is the case that God's will is always done, and that He therefore did not die for everybody but only for the elect, in what sense did He "buy" the false teachers? This text clearly shows that God's will isn't always done in the particulars. the false teachers were bought with Jesus' blood, yet they are false teachers. Conclusion The argument for limited atonement seems strong at first, but then progressively weakens as one reads the "proof" texts more closely. It is a cardinal rule of biblical interpretation that clear passages should be used to interpret less clear passages. Utilizing this rule it is clear that not one passage cited by those who teach limited atonement clearly states that God's sacrifice is for the elect only; and there are many which state otherwise. Simply looking at the context is enough to show that the interpretation given by those who teach limited atonement doesn't hold up. What Jesus said in John 17 is not referring to the elect, the immediate context is the Apostles not the church in general (vv11-15 especially see v 12 in which our Lord says "I was with them in the world"). It isn't until verse 20 that the passage has a more universal application. Therefore to use this as a proof text for limited atonement ignores the universal application of Jesus' mission, especially in the writings of the Apostle John (Jn 1:29, 6:51, 11:51-52, 1Jn 2:2)! John could not have meant that Christ's atonement was limited because he clearly said otherwise in his other writings. Even in John 17, a favorite of those who preach limited atonement, the interpreter must ignore John's other writings to come to his conclusion. The use of those passages that say "us" as proof of limited atonement are not grammatically tenable, every Sunday my pastor says words to the effect that Christ died for us never once implying that he only means the elect. Therefore we see that when the Bible says "us" it may or may not mean the elect, the burden of proof is on those who want to say "us" must refer to only the elect and there is nothing in the context of these passages to make us believe that us refers only to the elect. There are other passages in which God makes it clear that His grace is for all men. A fine example of this occurs in 1 Tim 2:3-7 where we learn that God wishes all men to be saved because the mediator Jesus Christ gave Himself as a ransom for all. For another example we need look no further than 1 John 2:2, the Apostle clearly says that Christ died for the sins of the whole world, not just for a few. But the objection can still be made that God's will is always done and that this is clearly taught in Scripture, (Num. 23:19, Isa 43:13, 46:10, Act 4:27-28) therefore the pertinent passages dealing with us should be read in that light as well as those saying that Jesus died for the world's sins. Isaiah 46:10 is often cited to prove that God has ordained every thing beforehand. This is also not tenable. In Isa 46:10 God is merely saying that He has planned the end from the beginning, not that He has planned everything from the beginning through the end. Please notice how this is written, God is simply saying that He will conclude history in a manner consistent with His purpose. He is saying that Israel should not fear as He will save them. But positively we have God's promise that He does indeed care for us all, and that He sent His only begotten Son to die for all of us sinners, not just some! We have St. Paul's statement that God wishes all men to be saved (1 Tim 2:3-7), St. John says that He died for all sins (1 John 2:2) to mention just two. Those who teach limited atonement deny the clear statements of Scripture, therefore they preach a different gospel. Home Doctrine and Practice E-Mail Author
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